Student Externships with Dr. Degner |
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In order to have a better appreciation of your knowledge base you will have a written examination during your rotationThe examination consists of questions about surgical diseasesIn order to review material covered in the examination review your notes from school in your surgery coursesMost of all, do not stress about the exam...it may affect your grade, but your performance during the rotation will be weighted more heavily |
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Example test questions for student externships SCS 694 and VM 611
1. Which of the following statement is false a. osteosarcoma is the most common primary bone tumor in dogs b. elevated alkaline phosphatase is a positive prognostic indicator for dogs having osteosarcoma c. most dogs have micrometastatic disease at the time of diagnosis of osteosarcoma d. osteosarcoma has a greater tendency to spread to other bones versus the lungs following chemotherapy in dogs
2. Which of the following test on a biochemical profile is not an indicator of liver function a. glucose b. cholesterol c. alkaline phosphatase d. bilirubin
3. Which forces must be overcome to stabilize a mid-shaft, transverse, femoral fracture a. rotation and shear b. distraction and shear c. bending and rotation d. bending and shear
4. Which is a potential complication following portosystemic shunt correction a. seizures b. hypocalcemia c. liver congestion due to portal hypertension d. hyperglycemia
5. The tibial plateau leveling osteotomy may resolve lameness because a. it eliminates cranial translation of the tibia as detected by the cranial drawer test b. it tightens the periarticular tissues of the stifle joint c. it does not allow progression of arthritis d. it results in elimination of cranial tibial thrust during weight-bearing
6. Which of the following is true a. All 5 tendons which form the Achille's tendon directly attach onto the calcaneous bone b. When only gastrocnemeus tendon is torn a dog will walk plantigrade c. When the gastrocnemeus tendon is torn the the toes are usually correctly positioned d. Diabetes mellitus can cause a cat to walk plantigrade, simulating a Achille's rupture
7. Hip luxations a. can be treated with open reduction if there is moderate hip dysplasia or less b. most commonly are ventral c. are difficult if not impossible to successfully reduce if a type C capsular tear is present d. usually can be reduced with light sedation
8. Anal sac carcinomas a. are usually malignant b. can produce parathormone c. should have surgery when there is evidence of metastatic disease to sublumbar lymph nodes d. all of the above
9. Metacarpal fractures a. always need to be repaired b. are easiest to expose via a palmar approach c. should be repaired if the weight-bearing metacarpals are involved d. usually result in nonunion when repaired with plates
10. The benefits of a free muscle flap include a. higher vascular resistance therefore better perfusion than a free skin flap b. high morbidity c. shorter critical ischemia time d. profound atrophy of the muscle resulting in better distal extremity contouring
11. Microvascular free flaps a. all have a critical ischemia time of less than 1 hour b. require multiple surgeries to attain the final result c. have longer hospital stay for the patient versus traditional techniques d. generally have an "all or none" survival pattern
12. The block recession osteotomy for femoral trochleoplasty a. is ideal for caudal cruciate tears b. is usually done with square rongeurs c. is beneficial as the proximal trochear groove is also deeped versus the wedge recession trochloplasty d. is contraindicated in patients smaller than 15 pounds
13. Meniscal tears a. are caused by cranial translation of the femur relative to the tibia b. are most common after TPLO because these stifles still have cranial drawer when you palpate the stifle c. are caused by cranial translation of the tibia relative to the femur d. are equally common on the medial versus the lateral meniscus
14. Ammonium biurate stones in a Yorkie a. should be treated with allantoin b. frequently are caused by a congenital condition that is treatable with surgery c. should prompt you to prescribe SAMe for liver disease d. carries a poor prognosis
15. Dogs that present to you for treatment of GDV a. should have an intravenous catheter placed in the saphenous vein b. and have gastric necrosis at the time of surgery have a 50% death rate c. should be decompressed per rectum to prevent stomach rupture d. should be treated with gentamicin and rimadyl to combat infection and inflammation
16. The stomach a. has 70% of its blood flow that goes to the mucosa b. can be safely surgically reduced to 25% of its original volume c. have a bilroth I procedure which involves side to side anastomosis of the small bowel to stomach d. a. and b.
17. The order of skin graft revitalization is a. imbibition, inosculation, revascularization b. inosculation, imbibtion, revascularization c. revascularization, imbibition, inosculation d. revascularization, inosculation, imbibition
18. Ectopic ureter patients a. infrequently have urinary sphincter mechanism incontinence b. are best treated with colposuspension and phenylpropanolamine c. should be euthanized d. are best diagnosed using an excretory urogram using CT imagery
19. The triple pelvic osteotomy a. is usually indicated in patients that have mature bones b. is performed by cutting the iliopubic eminence, ilium and ischium c. is indicated for all dogs that have a positive Ortolani sign d. in only indicated in dogs that have a crisp Ortolani sign and minimal to no degenerative joint diseased
20. Complications of epidural analgesia administration include a. intrathecal injection b. venous sinus injection c. missing the epidural space d. all of the above |
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Board-certification by the American College of Veterinary SurgeonsWhat does it mean? |
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